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Perpetuities

Payments forever. The present value is finite because discounting beats accumulation, and the formulas are the cleanest in the syllabus.

The formulas

Perpetuity-immediate
a∞‾∣=1ia_{\overline{\infty}|} = \dfrac{1}{i}
Perpetuity-due
a¨∞‾∣=1d=1+ii\ddot{a}_{\overline{\infty}|} = \dfrac{1}{d} = \dfrac{1+i}{i}
Increasing perpetuity
(Ia)∞‾∣=1i+1i2=1+ii2(Ia)_{\overline{\infty}|} = \dfrac{1}{i} + \dfrac{1}{i^{2}} = \dfrac{1+i}{i^{2}}
Geometric (Gordon)
PV=1i−gPV = \dfrac{1}{i-g}

payments growing at rate g < i

Where it comes from

  1. Let n→∞n \to \infty in an‾∣=1−vnia_{\overline{n}|} = \frac{1-v^n}{i}. Since ∣v∣<1|v| < 1, vn→0v^n \to 0 and the value tends to 1/i1/i.
  2. The due version is one period earlier: multiply by (1+i)(1+i), giving 1/d1/d.
  3. For payments growing by a factor (1+g)(1+g) each period, the series has ratio 1+g1+i<1\frac{1+g}{1+i} < 1 and sums to 1i−g\frac{1}{i-g}.

Worked example

An endowment is to pay 25,000 at the end of every year forever. At 4.5% effective, how much must be invested today?

  1. A level perpetuity-immediate has present value paymenti\dfrac{\text{payment}}{i}.
  2. PV=25,0000.045=555,555.56PV = \dfrac{25{,}000}{0.045} = 555{,}555.56.
  3. The intuition: 4.5% of 555,555.56 is exactly 25,000, so the fund pays interest only and never shrinks.

Answer: 555,555.56

This answer is recomputed from the site’s own interest-theory and probability functions every time the test suite runs, so the page and the mathematics cannot drift apart.

Memory hooks

  • 1/i is 'the fund whose interest exactly is the payment'. Everything else is that plus a timing shift.
  • Perpetuity-due = perpetuity-immediate + one payment now = 1/i + 1 = 1/d.

Traps

  • Using 1/i when the first payment is immediate - that needs 1/d.
  • Applying the Gordon form when g ≥ i, where the present value is infinite.

Related

Drill this: the Exam FM question bank has original questions on this topic, and today’s free round is open to everyone.